The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) released the notification for the Junior Engineer Examination, 2026 on 02.09.2026 (F. No. HQ-C-3019/1/2026-C-3). The examination fills a tentative 1748 vacancies of Junior Engineer across 14 Government of India organisations, and simultaneously recruits Scientific Assistant in the India Meteorological Department.

All posts are Group ‘B’ in Level-6 of the 7th CPC Pay Matrix (Rs. 35,400 – Rs. 1,12,400).

This page is the master reference. For the detailed, branch-specific syllabus and eligibility, use the branch guides below.

Branch-Wise Detailed Guides

Branch / Post Exam Subject Detailed Guide
Junior Engineer (Civil) Part-A: General Engineering (Civil & Structural) SSC JE Civil 2026 — Eligibility, Pattern & Full Syllabus
Junior Engineer (Mechanical) Part-C: General Engineering (Mechanical) SSC JE Mechanical 2026 — Eligibility, Pattern & Full Syllabus
Junior Engineer (Electrical) Part-B: General Engineering (Electrical) SSC JE Electrical 2026 — Eligibility, Pattern & Full Syllabus
Junior Engineer (Telecom) Part-G: Telecommunication SSC JE Telecom 2026 (DoT) — Eligibility, Pattern & Full Syllabus
Scientific Assistant (IMD) Part-D (CS & IT) / Part-E (Electronics & Telecom) / Part-F (Physics) SSC Scientific Assistant IMD 2026 — Eligibility, Pattern & Full Syllabus

SSC JE 2026 at a Glance

Examination Junior Engineer Examination, 2026
Conducting Body Staff Selection Commission, Department of Personnel & Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
Notification No. F. No. HQ-C-3019/1/2026-C-3, dated 02.09.2026
Posts JE (Civil), JE (Mechanical), JE (Electrical), JE (Electrical & Mechanical), JE (Telecom), Scientific Assistant in IMD
Tentative Vacancies 1748
Post Classification Group ‘B’ (Non-Gazetted)
Pay Scale Level-6, 7th CPC Pay Matrix — Rs. 35,400 to Rs. 1,12,400
Selection Stages Paper-I (CBE, qualifying) → Paper-II (CBE, merit) → Post Preference / FRTA → Document Verification
Application Mode Online at ssc.gov.in or the mySSC mobile app
Service Liability All India Service Liability (AISL)
Probation 2 years
Toll-Free Helpline 1800 309 3063

1. Important Dates

Event Date
Notification released / Online application opens 02.09.2026
Last date and time for online application 22.09.2026 (23:00 hrs)
Last date and time for online fee payment 23.09.2026 (23:00 hrs)
Window for Online Application Form Correction 28.09.2026 to 30.09.2026 (23:00 hrs)
Paper-I (Computer Based Examination) October / November 2026 (tentative)
Paper-II (Computer Based Examination) December 2026 (tentative)

2. Participating Organisations, Posts and Qualifications

# Organisation Post Essential Educational Qualification Age Limit
1 Border Roads Organisation (BRO) JE (Civil) Degree in Civil Engineering; OR 3-year Diploma in Civil Engineering + 2 years’ experience in Planning/Execution/Maintenance of civil engineering works Up to 30 years
JE (E&M) Degree in Electrical or Mechanical Engineering; OR 3-year Diploma in Electrical/Automobile/Mechanical Engineering + 2 years’ experience
2 Brahmaputra Board, Ministry of Jal Shakti JE (Civil) 3-year Diploma in Civil Engineering Up to 30 years
3 Central Water Commission JE (Mechanical) Bachelor’s Degree or Diploma in Mechanical Engineering Up to 30 years
JE (Civil) Bachelor’s Degree or Diploma in Civil Engineering
4 Central Public Works Department (CPWD) JE (Electrical) Diploma in Electrical or Mechanical Engineering Up to 32 years
JE (Civil) Diploma in Civil Engineering
5 Central Water and Power Research Station JE (Electrical) Diploma in Electrical Engineering Up to 30 years
JE (Civil) Diploma in Civil Engineering
6 DGQA-NAVAL, Ministry of Defence JE (Mechanical) Degree in Mechanical Engineering; OR 3-year Diploma in Mechanical Engineering + 2 years’ experience Up to 30 years
JE (Electrical) Degree in Electrical Engineering; OR 3-year Diploma in Electrical Engineering + 2 years’ experience
7-8 Farakka Barrage Project, Ministry of Jal Shakti JE (Electrical), JE (Civil) Diploma in Electrical / Civil Engineering Up to 30 years
9 Military Engineer Services (MES) JE (Civil) Degree in Civil Engineering; OR 3-year Diploma in Civil Engineering + 2 years’ experience Up to 30 years
JE (E&M) Degree in Electrical or Mechanical Engineering; OR 3-year Diploma + 2 years’ experience
10 National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO) JE (Civil) Diploma in Civil Engineering Up to 30 years
11 Director General of Lighthouses & Lightships, M/o Ports, Shipping & Waterways JE (Civil) Degree in Civil Engineering; OR Diploma in Civil Engineering with 3 years’ experience; OR equivalent qualification Up to 32 years
JE (Electrical) Degree in Electrical Engineering; OR Diploma in Electrical Engineering with 3 years’ experience; OR equivalent qualification
12 Department of Telecommunication (DoT) JE (Telecom) Bachelor’s Degree in Engineering/Technology in Electrical, Electronics, Electrical Communications, Computer Science, Telecommunications, IT or Instrumentation Up to 30 years
13 India Meteorological Department (IMD) Scientific Assistant B.Sc. with Physics as one of the subjects; OR Bachelor’s Degree in Computer Science / Computer Applications / Electronics / ECE / E&TC / Instrumentation / IT / Telecommunication / Communication Engineering Up to 30 years
14 Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying JE (Civil) Degree or 3-year Diploma in Civil Engineering Up to 30 years

Abbreviations

JE(C) = Junior Engineer (Civil) · JE(M) = Junior Engineer (Mechanical) · JE(E) = Junior Engineer (Electrical) · JE(E&M) = Junior Engineer (Electrical & Mechanical) · JE(T) = Junior Engineer (Telecom) · SA = Scientific Assistant

Post Eligibility Cross-Over Notes

  1. Candidates opting for JE (Mechanical) are also eligible for JE (Electrical & Mechanical).
  2. Candidates opting for JE (Telecom) are also eligible for Scientific Assistant in IMD and JE (Electrical), subject to fulfilling EQ.
  3. Candidates opting for JE (Electrical) are also eligible for JE (Telecom) (subject to EQ) and JE (Electrical & Mechanical).
  4. Candidates opting for Scientific Assistant are also eligible for JE (Telecom), subject to fulfilling its EQ.

Qualification Rules to Note

  • Where experience is required, it must be acquired after completing the essential educational qualification. Internship, training or research experience gained during the course does not count.
  • Qualifications obtained through ODL/Online mode in prohibited disciplines (Engineering, Medicine, Dental, Nursing, Pharmacy, Architecture, Physiotherapy) are not accepted, except where permitted by the statutory/regulatory body and notified by the UGC. Per the Supreme Court order dated 11.03.2019 in M.A. No. 3092/2018, IGNOU B.Tech Degree/Diploma in Engineering awarded to students enrolled up to academic year 2009-10 is treated as valid.
  • Candidates whose result was declared on or before the cut-off date and who are declared passed are deemed to meet the EQ. Mere processing of the result by the cut-off date does not qualify.

3. Vacancies

Tentative Vacancies: 1748 (One Thousand Seven Hundred Forty-Eight).

Final post-wise and category-wise vacancies will be published on the Commission’s website under Candidates > Tentative Vacancy. SSC does not collect State-wise or Zone-wise vacancy data — for that, candidates must approach the User Department concerned.

4. Age Limit and Age Relaxation

The crucial date for age reckoning is 01.08.2026.

Age Limit for the Post Date of Birth Must Be
Up to 30 years Not earlier than 02.08.1996 and not later than 01.08.2008
Up to 32 years Not earlier than 02.08.1994 and not later than 01.08.2008
Code Category Age Relaxation Beyond Upper Age Limit
01 SC / ST 5 years
02 OBC 3 years
03 PwBD (Unreserved / EWS) 10 years
04 PwBD (OBC) 13 years
05 PwBD (SC / ST) 15 years
06 Ex-Servicemen (ESM) 3 years after deduction of military service rendered from the actual age
08 Defence Personnel disabled in operations during hostilities (UR / EWS / OBC) 3 years
09 Defence Personnel disabled in operations during hostilities (SC / ST) 8 years

Note: Date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate is final. A mismatch is a ground for rejection of candidature. Age relaxation is not admissible to sons, daughters and dependents of Ex-Servicemen.

5. Reservation and PwBD Suitability

There is no vacancy reservation for Ex-Servicemen in this examination because JE posts are Group ‘B’; however, ESM age relaxation is admissible. SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD reservation is determined and communicated by the Indenting Organisations, not by SSC.

Post Functional Requirement Suitable Benchmark Disability
Junior Engineer (Civil) S, ST, W, BN, L, KC, MF, RW, SE, H, C D, HH; OA, OL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV, SD & SI without neurological/limb dysfunction; SLD, MI; MD involving these
JE (E/M) S, ST, BN, L, KC, MF, RW, SE, H, C D, HH; OA, OL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV, SD & SI without neurological/limb dysfunction; SLD, MI; MD involving these
JE (Civil) in DG Lighthouses & Lightships S, ST, BN, KC, MF, RW, SE, H, C D, HH; OA, OL, LC, Dw, AAV; SLD, MI; MD involving these
JE (Electrical) in DG Lighthouses & Lightships S, ST, W, BN, L, KC, PP, MF, RW, SE, C D, HH; OL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV; ASD(M), SLD, MI; MD involving these
JE (Telecom) in DoT S, ST, W, BN, SE, C, MF, H, RW VH (Low Vision); Locomotor Disability (OA/OL and OAL) including LC, CP, Dw, AAV, SD and SI without associated neurological/limb dysfunction; MD from these
Scientific Assistant in IMD S, ST, W, RW, SE, C OH — (OL or OA), Dw, AAV
JE (Civil) in Department of Fisheries S, ST, W, BN, L, PP, KC, MF, RW, SE, H, C HH; OA, OL

Important PwBD notes:

  • Except for BRO, JE posts are identified as suitable for the disabilities listed above. BRO posts are excluded from PwBD suitability.
  • JE (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) and Scientific Assistant in IMD are not identified as suitable for Visually Handicapped persons. JE (Telecom) in DoT is the only VH-suitable post.
  • Only male candidates are eligible for Junior Engineer posts in the Border Roads Organisation.

Abbreviations Used

Functional Requirement: S = Sitting, ST = Standing, W = Walking, BN = Bending, L = Lifting, KC = Kneeling & Crouching, MF = Manipulation with Fingers, RW = Reading & Writing, SE = Seeing, H = Hearing, C = Communication, PP = Pulling and Pushing.

Nature of Physical Disabilities: D = Deaf, HH = Hard of Hearing, OA = One Arm, OL = One Leg, OAL = One Arm One Leg, CP = Cerebral Palsy, LC = Leprosy Cured, Dw = Dwarfism, AAV = Acid Attack Victims, SD = Spinal Deformity, SI = Spinal Injury, SLD = Specific Learning Disability, MI = Mental Illness, MD = Multiple Disabilities, ASD(M) = Autism Spectrum Disorder (Mild).

6. Nationality / Citizenship

A candidate must be either (a) a citizen of India, (b) a subject of Nepal, (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a person of Indian origin who migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Candidates in categories (b), (c) and (d) must hold a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India.

7. Application Fee

Fee payable Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only)
Exempted categories All women candidates, SC, ST, PwBD and Ex-Servicemen
Payment modes BHIM UPI, Net Banking, Visa / MasterCard / Maestro / RuPay Debit Card only
Last date for fee payment 23.09.2026 (23:00 hrs)
Correction charge (1st time) Rs. 200/-
Correction charge (2nd time) Rs. 500/-
Refund Fee once paid is non-refundable and non-adjustable

If fee is not received, the application status shows ‘Incomplete’ and the form is summarily rejected. Verify payment via the ‘Payment Status’ link in your login.

8. How to Apply

  1. Complete One-Time Registration (OTR) on the new SSC website ssc.gov.in. OTR generated on the old website (ssc.nic.in) will not work. Once created on the new site, the OTR remains valid for all future examinations.
  2. Opt for Aadhaar-Based Authentication. Candidates who do so are not required to carry photographs or original photo-ID at the exam venue, and their form will not be rejected on photograph/signature grounds.
  3. Live photograph capture. The application module captures a real-time photo — pre-existing photographs are rejected. Use good light, a plain background, camera at eye level, full-frontal view, no cap, mask or spectacles.
  4. Signature upload: JPEG format, 10–20 KB, approximately 6.0 cm (width) × 2.0 cm (height). Blurred signatures are summarily rejected.
  5. PwBD/PwD candidates seeking reservation or scribe facility must upload the Certificate of Disability (Annexure-I, IA and X to XII as applicable) while filling the form.
  6. Choose three centre preferences within one region, in order of priority. Centre change requests are not entertained later.
  7. Preview and print the form before final submission, then pay the fee if applicable.

Applications may also be submitted through the mySSC mobile application, available on the Google Play Store.

9. Application Correction Window

  • Open from 28.09.2026 to 30.09.2026 (23:00 hrs).
  • A candidate may correct and resubmit the form a maximum of two times.
  • Charges: Rs. 200 for the first correction, Rs. 500 for the second. Applicable to all candidates irrespective of gender or category.
  • The latest corrected form is treated as valid; earlier submissions stand cancelled.
  • Only candidates whose completed form and fee were received within the specified period may make corrections.
  • After the window closes, no change is permitted under any circumstances.

10. Scheme of Examination

Paper-I (Computer Based Examination) — Qualifying

Subject Questions Maximum Marks Duration
(i) General Intelligence and Reasoning 50 50 2 Hours
(2 hours 40 minutes for candidates eligible for scribe under Para 9.1, 9.2 and 9.3)
(ii) General Awareness 50 50
(iii) General Engineering — the Part opted (A / B / C / D / E / F / G) 100 100
Total 200 200

Paper-II (Computer Based Examination) — Merit Deciding

Subject Questions Maximum Marks Duration
General Engineering — the Part opted (A / B / C / D / E / F / G) 100 300 2 Hours (2 hours 40 minutes for eligible scribe candidates)

Subject Parts

Part Subject For the Post of
Part-A General Engineering (Civil & Structural) JE (Civil)
Part-B General Engineering (Electrical) JE (Electrical)
Part-C General Engineering (Mechanical) JE (Mechanical)
Part-D General Engineering (Computer Science and Information Technology) Scientific Assistant in IMD
Part-E General Engineering (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) Scientific Assistant in IMD
Part-F Physics Scientific Assistant in IMD
Part-G Telecommunication JE (Telecom) — conducted in a separate batch

Key Examination Rules

  • General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness are compulsory for all candidates in Paper-I. In addition, the candidate attempts exactly one of Parts A to G, as opted in the application form.
  • Parts A to F are conducted in one batch; Part-G (JE Telecom) is conducted in a separate batch, in both papers.
  • Standard of questions: Diploma level for Civil, Mechanical and Electrical; graduation level for Computer Science & IT, Electronics & Telecommunication, Physics and Telecommunication.
  • Both papers are objective type MCQs, set in Hindi and English only.
  • Negative marking: 0.25 marks per wrong answer in Paper-I; 1.00 mark per wrong answer in Paper-II.
  • IS 456:2000 Code of Practice table and Steam Table are available on the candidate console under the “Useful Data” button, active throughout the exam.
  • A scientific calculator is available on screen for the entire duration, as an icon to the left of the candidate’s application image.
  • No physical version of the table or calculator is allowed inside the exam lab.
  • The subject/stream opted at the time of filling the form cannot be changed under any circumstances.
  • Tentative Answer Keys are published after the CBE; representations may be submitted online within the time limit on payment of Rs. 50 per question (non-refundable).
  • There is no provision for re-evaluation or re-checking of scores at any stage.

11. Mode of Selection

Minimum Qualifying Marks (Paper-I and Paper-II)

Category Minimum Qualifying Marks
UR 30%
OBC / EWS 25%
All other categories 20%

Selection Flow

  1. Paper-I (CBE) is qualifying in nature. Candidates are shortlisted category-wise for Paper-II based on normalised Paper-I marks.
  2. Paper-II (CBE) decides the merit. Only normalised Paper-II scores are used for the final merit.
  3. Separate merit lists are drawn for: JE (Civil), JE (Electrical & Mechanical), Scientific Assistant in IMD, and JE (Telecom).
  4. Post Preference is collected through the online Option Form before the declaration of the First Round of Tentative Allocation (FRTA).
  5. FRTA / Final allotment is made on merit-cum-preference. Once allotted, no post change is made even if the candidate fails post-specific physical/medical/educational standards.
  6. Document Verification is conducted by the User Department after the declaration of the final result.

Normalisation Rules

  • Marks are normalised when the paper is conducted in multiple shifts, as per the Commission’s Notice dated 02.06.2025.
  • Mechanical and Electrical scores are normalised against each other (treated as different shifts) because both branches compete for the same combined post while sitting different papers.
  • Part-D, Part-E and Part-F marks for the IMD post are also normalised by treating them as different shifts.

Resolution of Tie Cases

Where candidates secure equal aggregate marks in Paper-II, the tie is resolved in this order:

  1. Marks in Part (i) of Paper-I (General Intelligence & Reasoning)
  2. Marks in Part (ii) of Paper-I (General Awareness)
  3. Date of birth — older candidate placed higher
  4. Alphabetical order of the names of the candidates

Post Preference — Critical Warning

Preferences once exercised are FINAL and IRREVERSIBLE. Candidates who do not submit post preferences within the stipulated time will not be considered for any post in the FRTA or the final result, and no second opportunity is given.

12. Complete Syllabus Summary

Paper-I — Common Sections (All Posts)

General Intelligence & Reasoning: Verbal and non-verbal questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space visualization, problem-solving, analysis, judgment, decision-making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, abstract ideas and symbols and their relationships, arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.

General Awareness: Environment and its application to society; current events; everyday observations and experience in their scientific aspect; India and its neighbouring countries — History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity and Scientific Research. Questions do not require special study of any discipline.

Paper-I — Engineering Topic Lists

Part Topics
Part-A (Civil) Engineering Mechanics, Solid Mechanics, Structural Analysis, Construction Materials and Management, Estimating, Costing and Valuation, Concrete Structures, Steel Structures, Surveying, Soil Mechanics (Geotechnical Engineering), Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics, Hydrology and Irrigation Engineering, Environmental Engineering, Transportation (Traffic) Engineering
Part-B (Electrical) Fundamentals of Electrical Engineering, Magnetic Circuits, A.C. Fundamentals, Measurement and Measuring Instruments, Electrical Machines, Special Electric Machines and Synchronous Generators, Generation, Transmission and Distribution, Estimation & Costing, Utilization of Electrical Energy, Basic Electronics, Power Electronics
Part-C (Mechanical) Engineering Mechanics, Strength of Materials, Theory of Machines, Machine Design, Materials Science and Engineering, Thermal Engineering, Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulic Machinery, Industrial Engineering, Manufacturing Engineering, Metrology and Measurement, Advanced Manufacturing Processes
Part-D (CS & IT) Engineering Mathematics, Digital Logic, Computer Organization and Architecture, Programming and Data Structures, Algorithms, Theory of Computation, Compiler Design, Operating System, Databases, Computer Networks
Part-E (Electronics & Telecom) Electronics: Electronic Materials & Components, Diodes, Transistors, Amplifiers & Oscillators, Voltage Regulation, Network Theorems, AC Circuits, Three-Phase Circuits, Resonance, Digital Electronics, Sequential & Combinational Logic, Data Conversion & Codes. Telecommunications: Antennas, Radio Wave Propagation, Electromagnetic Spectrum, Modulation, Single Sideband, Frequency Modulation, Pulse Modulation, Multiplexing, Digital Communication, RF Communications & Wireless Telecommunications
Part-F (Physics) Mathematical Methods, Mechanics, General Properties of Matter, Oscillations, Waves, Optics, Electricity, Magnetism, Kinetic Theory, Thermodynamics, Modern Physics, Solid State Physics, Semiconductor Devices, Analog and Digital Electronics
Part-G (Telecommunications) Engineering Mathematics, Network Analysis, Signals and Systems, Electronic Devices, Analog Circuits, Digital Circuits, Control Systems, Analog Communications, Digital Communications, Electromagnetics

Paper-II — Detailed Syllabus

Paper-II expands each Part into a full topic-wise syllabus. Since this is the paper that decides your final merit, study it from the branch guide that applies to you:

13. Examination Centres and Regional Offices

Candidates may give preference for three centres within the same region, in order of priority. Requests to change the centre are not considered later.

SSC Region States / UTs Covered Examination Centres (with Centre Codes)
Central Region (CR)
Prayagraj — ssccr.gov.in
Bihar and Uttar Pradesh Bhagalpur (3201), Gaya (3203), Muzaffarpur (3205), Patna (3206), Agra (3001), Prayagraj (3003), Bareilly (3005), Gorakhpur (3007), Jhansi (3008), Kanpur (3009), Lucknow (3010), Meerut (3011), Varanasi (3013), Darbhanga (3202), Chapra (3208), Purnea (3209), Saharsa (3210), Munger (3211)
Eastern Region (ER)
Kolkata — sscer.org
Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Jharkhand, Odisha, Sikkim and West Bengal Sri Vijaya Puram (4802), Ranchi (4205), Dhanbad (4206), Jamshedpur (4207), Suri (4416), Burdwan (4422), Durgapur (4426), Balasore (4601), Berhampore (4602), Bhubaneswar (4604), Cuttack (4605), Sambalpur (4609), Rourkela (4610), Dhenkanal (4611), Gangtok (4001), Kolkata (4410), Siliguri (4415), Kalyani (4419), Malda (4412)
Karnataka Kerala Region (KKR)
Bengaluru — ssckkr.kar.nic.in
Karnataka, Kerala and Lakshadweep Bengaluru (9001), Belgavi (9002), Kalaburagi/Gulbarga (9005), Mangalore (9008), Mysore (9009), Shivamogga (9010), Hubballi (9011), Udupi (9012), Kannur (9202), Kottayam (9205), Kozhikode (9206), Thiruvananthapuram (9211), Ernakulam (9213), Kollam (9210), Thrissur (9212), Kavaratti (9401), Alappuzha (9201), Malappuram (9207)
Madhya Pradesh Region (MPR)
Raipur — sscmpr.gov.in
Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh Bhopal (6001), Gwalior (6005), Indore (6006), Jabalpur (6007), Satna (6014), Sagar (6015), Ujjain (6016), Bilaspur (6202), Raipur (6204), Durg Bhilai (6205)
North Eastern Region (NER)
Guwahati — sscner.org.in
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura Itanagar (5001), Guwahati/Dispur (5105), Imphal (5501), Shillong (5401), Aizawl (5701), Dimapur (5301), Agartala (5601)
Northern Region (NR)
New Delhi — sscnr.nic.in
Delhi, Rajasthan and Uttarakhand Delhi (2201), Bikaner (2404), Jaipur (2405), Udaipur (2409), Sikar (2411), Dehradun (2002), Haldwani (2003), Roorkee (2006)
North Western Region (NWR)
Chandigarh — sscnwr.org
Chandigarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and Punjab Chandigarh/Mohali (1601), Hamirpur (1202), Shimla (1203), Jammu (1004), Samba (1010), Srinagar J&K (1007), Bathinda (1401), Amritsar (1404), Jalandhar (1402), Patiala (1403), Ludhiana (1405)
Southern Region (SR)
Chennai — sscsr.gov.in
Andhra Pradesh, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and Telangana Guntur (8001), Kakinada (8009), Kurnool (8003), Nellore (8010), Rajahmundry (8004), Tirupathi (8006), Vijayawada (8008), Visakhapatnam (8007), Puducherry (8401), Chennai (8201), Coimbatore (8202), Madurai (8204), Salem (8205), Tiruchirappalli (8206), Tirunelveli (8207), Vellore (8208), Hyderabad (8601), Karimnagar (8604), Warangal (8603), Krishnagiri (8209), Srikakulam (8015), Eluru (8016), Siddipet (8605)
Western Region (WR)
Mumbai — sscwr.net
Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Goa, Gujarat and Maharashtra Ahmedabad (7001), Vadodara (7002), Rajkot (7006), Surat (7007), Mehsana (7013), Amravati (7201), Kolhapur (7203), Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar (7202), Mumbai (7204), Nagpur (7205), Nashik (7207), Pune (7208), Panaji (7801), Jalgaon (7214), Nanded (7206)

14. Admission to the Examination Centre

  • Admission Certificates (AC) are available only on the SSC website, 3–4 days before the exam. They are not sent by post or email.
  • Exam city/centre and timetable details are uploaded about 10 days before the examination.
  • Candidates who have not undergone Aadhaar-Based Authentication must report two hours before the scheduled start, and must carry at least two passport-size recent colour photographs plus an original valid photo-ID with Date of Birth as printed on the AC.
  • Acceptable photo-IDs: Voter’s ID Card, Driving Licence, PAN Card, Passport, School/College ID Card, Employer ID Card (Govt./PSU/Private), Ex-serviceman Discharge Book, or any other photo-bearing ID issued by the Central/State Government.
  • If the photo-ID does not carry the date of birth, an additional original document (Matriculation Certificate, CBSE/ICSE/State Board Marks Sheet, Birth Certificate or Category Certificate) must be carried. A DoB mismatch means the candidate will not be allowed to appear.
  • Candidates who opted for Aadhaar-Based Authentication are exempt from these photograph and photo-ID requirements.

15. Scribe, Compensatory Time and Assistive Devices

  • Candidates with benchmark disabilities in the category of Low Vision or Cerebral Palsy get Scribe/Technology/Assistive Devices on request, with the certificate (Annexure-X / Disability Certificate) uploaded at the time of application.
  • Other PwBD candidates get the facility on production of a certificate at the time of the examination from the CMO/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government health institution, as per Annexure-I, which must also be uploaded with the form.
  • PwD candidates with less than 40% disability and difficulty in writing may also avail the facility, per OM No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10.08.2022, on the certificate at Annexure-IA.
  • Compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination is given to candidates eligible for a scribe under Para 9.1, 9.2 and 9.3 — whether or not they actually use a scribe.
  • An own scribe must complete OTR and Aadhaar authentication on the SSC website. A scribe cannot assist more than one candidate, cannot be a candidate in the same examination, and must be one qualification step below the candidate.
  • The facility is provided only if opted for in the Online Application Form.

16. Document Verification

Document Verification is conducted by the User Department after declaration of the final result. Documents required include:

  1. Matriculation / Secondary Certificate
  2. Educational Qualification Certificate
  3. Experience Certificate, if applicable
  4. Caste / Category Certificate, if claiming reservation
  5. Persons with Disabilities Certificate in the prescribed format, if applicable
  6. For ESM: Undertaking (Annexure-VI), Serving Defence Personnel Certificate (Annexure-V) and Discharge Certificate as applicable
  7. Relevant certificate if seeking any age relaxation
  8. No Objection Certificate, if already employed in Government/Government undertakings
  9. Documents supporting any change of name after matriculation (marriage certificate, divorce decree, deed poll/affidavit with Gazette notification and newspaper cuttings, as applicable)
  10. Any other document specified in the Admission Certificate

17. Special Requirements — Border Roads Organisation (BRO)

  • Only male candidates are eligible for Junior Engineer posts in BRO.
  • BRO posts are not identified as suitable for PwBD candidates.
  • Physical Efficiency Test: One mile run, to be completed within 10 minutes — passing is mandatory. Conducted at GREF Centre, Pune, before further medical examination.
  • Candidates declared medically FIT are inducted into GREF and undergo initial training at GREF Centre, Dighi Camp, Pune-15, after which they may be posted anywhere in India.
  • A candidate who fails the BRO physical/medical standards after post allotment may not be considered for any other post or department.

Region-Wise Physical Standards (BRO)

Region States / Regions Included Min. Height Chest Min. Weight
Western Himalayan J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab Hills, Uttarakhand 158 cm 75 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 47.5 kg
Eastern Himalayan Sikkim, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Assam, Hill Region of West Bengal (Darjeeling & Kalimpong), Andaman & Nicobar 152 cm 75 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 47.5 kg
West Plain Region Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, Rajasthan, Western UP 162.5 cm 76 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 50 kg
Eastern Plain Eastern UP, Bihar, West Bengal, Odisha, Jharkhand 157 cm 75 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 50 kg
Central Region Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu, Chhattisgarh 157 cm 75 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 50 kg
Southern Region Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Puducherry, Telangana 157 cm 75 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 50 kg
Gorkhas (Indian Domicile) 152 cm 75 cm (unexpanded) + 5 cm expansion 47.5 kg
Relaxation for sons of serving/Ex-GREF personnel 2 cm 1 cm 2 kg

Visual standards: Visual acuity not less than 6/12 in each eye, or Right eye 6/6 and Left eye 6/24. Corrective spectacles are permitted; unaided vision in corrected cases must not be below 6/60 in each eye.

18. Action Against Malpractice

Candidates found guilty of malpractice face cancellation of candidature and debarment from SSC examinations. Debarment periods range from 1 year to 7 years depending on the offence. Serious offences carrying a 7-year debarment include: using unfair means or copying in the exam hall; impersonation or procuring impersonation; taking snapshots or videos of question papers; sharing the exam terminal through remote desktop software; attempting to hack or manipulate exam servers; possession of firearms or assaulting exam functionaries; and a scribe independently answering or prompting a candidate.

Possession of a mobile phone, Bluetooth device, wireless device or spy camera in the exam hall carries 3–5 years’ debarment. SSC also conducts post-examination analysis using log analysis, photo and biometric verification, and CCTV footage review.

19. Public Disclosure of Scores

After the final result, SSC publishes scores and rankings of non-recommended willing candidates in descending order (name, father/husband’s name, DoB, category, gender, educational qualifications, total marks, ranking, address and email). Candidates can opt out of this disclosure at the time of filling the Online Application Form.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many vacancies are there in SSC JE 2026?

1748 tentative vacancies across 14 organisations. Final post-wise and category-wise vacancies will be published separately on ssc.gov.in.

What is the last date to apply for SSC JE 2026?

22.09.2026 at 23:00 hours for the application; 23.09.2026 at 23:00 hours for fee payment.

Is a diploma enough for SSC JE 2026?

For most JE (Civil), JE (Electrical) and JE (Mechanical) posts, yes. BRO, MES, DGQA-Naval and DG Lighthouses require a degree or a diploma plus experience. JE (Telecom) and Scientific Assistant in IMD require a Bachelor’s degree — a diploma does not qualify.

Does Paper-I count in the final merit?

No. Paper-I is qualifying in nature. Only normalised Paper-II scores determine the final merit.

What is the negative marking in SSC JE 2026?

0.25 marks per wrong answer in Paper-I and 1 full mark per wrong answer in Paper-II.

Can I change my branch or centre after applying?

No. Neither the subject/stream nor the centre can be changed after the application, and requests for change are not entertained. Only the correction window (28–30 September 2026) allows limited corrections, twice at most, on payment of charges.

Can women apply for SSC JE 2026?

Yes, for all organisations except the Border Roads Organisation, where only male candidates are eligible. Women candidates are also exempt from the application fee.

What is the pay for SSC JE?

Level-6 of the 7th CPC Pay Matrix — Rs. 35,400 to Rs. 1,12,400 per month, as a Group ‘B’ post, with a 2-year probation and All India Service Liability.

Branch-Wise Syllabus Guides

Source: Notice of Junior Engineer Examination, 2026 (F. No. HQ-C-3019/1/2026-C-3), Staff Selection Commission, uploaded on ssc.gov.in on 02.09.2026. This page is a candidate-friendly summary prepared by PiyushAI. Candidates must read the official notice in full before applying; in case of any dispute the English version of the official notice prevails.